My only guess is because Haaland fouled Szoboszlai after Szoboszlai fouled him. So by their reasoning you can’t award the advantage to Haaland since he immediately commits a foul that stops Szoboszlai from a goal line clearance. So you go back to the original foul that started the sequence. But in my view the referee played the advantage so you either call the foul by Haaland or you allow the goal. It materialized so the foul by Szoboszlai becomes irrelevant.

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