
Sigh…. the southern democrats were the party that supported slavery and Jim Crow laws. They did this because they wanted to CONSERVE individual states rights (to do slavery) and a small federal government for no oversight. The Republican Party (the progressive, NOT Conservative Party at the time) was founded as an anti slavery party, and wanted a big federal government to enforce it.
In the early 1900s, democrats moved towards using the government to help working class people (progressive ideology) while the republicans supported big businesses and fought against federal intervention (conservative ideology). Now you know about the party switch. Know your facts please. TLDR: the democrats supported slavery because THEY USED TO BE CONSERVATIVE, now the republicans have become the conservatives.
tbh i think most of these people, including #1, know about the party switch. they bring up the historical party lines anyway because they're morons who simply do not care about facts, logic, intellectual honesty or accuracy. they only care about making pathetic attempts at owning libs. i don't even think they care when everybody points and laughs at their idiocy anymore... they're proud to be dumb dodos as long as it bothers a lib. they'll eat shit just so libs have to smell their breath
Legitimately the most brain dead, Self-victimizing take I’ve ever heard. Must be a shitty existence to always be at the mercy of the white man who makes considerations like social programs and public safety in the communities that they established hundreds of years ago because i deadass wouldnt see those institutions being a consideration if any other group had a sole had in establishing this nation. It must be tough.
Chattel slavery happened bc Africa became incredibly fractured during colonization and as the business of selling ppl to foreign interests became a means to an end it became popular- we caused cattle slavery w demand for slaves not bc it was already existing and the triangular slave trade was particularly cruel
dumbass comment. the slaves weren't chattel until whites made them chattel. funnily enough you recognize the unique horror of chattel slavery and commercialized slavery as compared to historical forms of slavery, so you try to preempt it by arguing it's actually the africans fault... but they didn't start chattel slavery 😂 they sold slaves to whites who then instituted arguably the most horrific mass enslavement, displacement, killing, rape, forced impregnation and torture in history
Literally everywhere. Housing, education, employment governmental support, red lining, scientific research, linguistics, incarceration— all of these favour white people over anyone else, especially Black people. Everything is built to disenfranchise them. They work twice as hard to get half as far because of the bullshit in place. Not to mention the disgusting amount of violence that is done against them, especially by the police, which rarely ever sees justice.
"it's all muh heckin colonizations fault" my god you're all the same cookie-cutter intellectually and morally bankrupt dunces parroting whatever braindead nonsense suits your hateful biases. the reddit brainlets seeping out from 4chan and 4chan adjacent internment spaces need to be shunned out of polite society once again
And hundred thousands fought against ending slavery… white guilt isn’t apart of the convo but you can’t just ignore the bad parts bc some good ppl decided to stand up against it and you can’t ignore how long ppl fought to end it but were brushed aside until a full on civil war had to happen.
Your take is so insane dude. Especially since many social programs like free breakfast for children in school was established by the black panther group. The whole you’re self victimizing bc actually white ppl did eventually allow social programs to help some communities so every issue caused by racists is fine is an incredibly hot take and not a good one
Well that’s a pretty general take- that’s not true of every nation tribe or country. Also while it is true it existed in the past colonization took it on a broad scale and erased entire civilizations and cultures w it- Africa and India used to be full of thriving civilizations w medical, mathematical, and scientific advancements and an incredible trade system and within some nations banned slavery outright. Their environments cultures and history have been irreparably altered
you are so loud and wrong omg 😭 the correct spelling is “a man’s opinion matters more than a woman’s”. #12 had it, he just needed an apostrophe. but I should add that what he said is a factually incorrect statement, because men today have absolutely nothing to do with the Civil War.
He added an “S.” Again, you do not need to add an “S” to an already plural noun. Adding an “S” makes a word plural when you’re talking about more than one. Men and women are already plural on their own, so adding an “S” is grammatically incorrect. I’m not going to go back and forth when you can simply look it up. If you want to be stubborn and stay wrong and keep getting downvoted, then do you, I guess.
omg. he said “*A* man’s opinion”, as in any SINGULAR given man, and “*A* woman’s”, as in a SINGULAR given woman. he said “[any given] man’s opinion is worth more than [any given] woman’s”. HE WAS NOT SPEAKING BROADLY IN THE PLURAL SENSE. he was speaking broadly in the SINGULAR sense. and, to be extremely clear, I still disagree with what he said, but it was grammatically correct.
GRAMMAR NERD HERE ☝️🤓 both #12’s original message and #28’s correction were wrong grammatically. The correct sentence would be “A man’s opinion about the civil war matters more than a woman’s.” But don’t y’all think you lost the plot arguing about grammar instead of the original post?
I think everyone is confusing my corrections here. “Relevancy? And if you want to go there, the opinions of men about the Civil War matter more than the opinions of women.” This is also grammatically correct while also keeping the plural nouns. This is what I was talking about when I said he was wrong and could have worded it better
“a man’s opinion on the Civil War matters more than a woman’s opinion” is completely fine. there’s zero reason to correct that sentence. #12 was saying that any singular given man’s opinion on the matter is worth more than any singular given woman’s opinion. they were not broadly referring to ALL men and ALL women, plural, at once.
I understand the distinction you’re making, but “all men/women” to “any individual man/woman” doesn’t actually make the statement less sexist. It arguably makes it worse. If you’re saying that any individual man’s opinion is inherently worth more than any individual woman’s opinion, then you’re still assigning greater value to someone’s opinion solely based on their sex. Whether you’re comparing all men vs. all women or one man vs. one woman.
that’s just not true. conservatism means conserving traditional institutions. definitionally the conservatives wanted to keep slavery because it was a traditional institution, and progressives wanted to abolish it. it is accurate to say the democratic party was the conservative party at the time and hence was in support of slavery
in a similar vein liberalism is a political movement centered on the belief in personal autonomy and equal rights, it was the main philosophical outcome of the enlightenment. following the tenets of liberalism does lead to abolitionist politics (which was one of the arguments by abolitionists at the time) however many historical figures who would be considered liberals or followed liberalism did own slaves (such as the founding fathers) which abolitionists pointed out was very hypocritical
It really isn’t; it’s grievance-driven revisionism designed to offload moral culpability from the patrons of a racist human trafficking network💀 Then you added the ridiculous notion that the northerners entered the civil war for moral concerns and not economic ones, which is a factually incorrect claim, by their own recorded admission😭
The better question is why you feel the need to sanitize the involvement of antebellum enslavers by acting like the act of purchasing human beings to subject them to sexual and chattel slavery is materially better than having sold them? And why you’re sanitizing the motives of northerners who immediately enacted Jim Crow after reunifying the union? And why you’re conflating the cultural differences between the “black leaders” and the individuals they sold, as though they were same groups?
I said blacks because their black, just like you said whites instead of Europeans. Not a big deal. Yes some northerners joined for economic concerns but many joined for moral, you do realize if it was just for economic reasons and not moral the White people who were 100% of congress at the time wouldn’t have passed the 13th,14th and 15th amendments right? You do know white people passed those amendments right? And northerners didn’t really have Jim Crow laws.
I didn’t make the original comment but the buyer of slaves is no better than the seller. I don’t think the original commenter was trying to insinuate that. All of slavery is bad. Also northerners never had Jim Crow laws. That was only in the South. Not to say the north was perfect, there was absolutely racism and segregation but it was de-facto segregation. It wasn’t by law like in the south
That wasn’t the point I was making; the point I was making was that you treated Africans as a monolith to offload responsibility of kidnappers by suggesting they were “the same as” their kidnapping victims, which was a transparent attempt to lay the logical groundwork to elevate the kidnapping victims in question to the same threshold of moral responsibility as their white buyers… which is kind of sociopathic ngl
Because if he operates through that (ridiculous) chain of thought, then the white enslavers aren’t the principle of the trans-Atlantic slave trade, which means they shouldn’t carry the brunt of the blame for it, which means his status as a beneficiary of the downstream effects of slavery can’t be associated with the immorality of slavery, which therefore eases his conscious and enables him disregard any notion that he’s perpetuating the same system that they were
For it to be revisionist then it has to be wrong. It is a correct statement that the west was the first to outlaw slavery. It is also factual that many Africans profited greatly off of the trans Atlantic slave trade. Slavery existed in Africa and everywhere else in the world before the trans Atlantic slave trade ever started.
You can’t try to displace the blame by saying everyone was doing it or that some Africans sold others. There was demand and an entire system set up by colonizers. African isn’t a monolith either as an entire continent. Some countries inside tried to deter the slave trade and outright tried to ban it but there’s only so much you can do when entire civilizations became fractured during colonization and colonizers came in and took over lands and peoples altering the entire environment and cultures
America was not one of the last to outlaw slavery. That’s just blatantly false. It is true that other western countries had already outlawed slavery but calling America one of the last is just completely false. Also slavery so absolutely completely illegal today in America so now ur rly just saying things to say things
To answer your question, yes, I did; I actually worked for several years in a museum that centered on exactly this topic, which is how I know both of your points are factually incorrect, and there’s extensive scholarly literature that confirms this. I’m more curious as to where you got the idea that America was the first to abolish slavery instead of one of the last, and where you got the idea that a country that added more steps to justify slavery “abolished” slavery???
Ur an idiot. Slavery is completely illegal. It is completely illegal to buy and sell human beings in the US. If u are convicted of a crime u are punished and u lose certain rights. It is completely illegal to hold a human being against their will in the US, but we still have jail. U are not understanding basic nuance
No it hasn’t lmao. My argument is that being punished for a crime you were convicted of under due process for a specific set of time is FAR different than being owned by another human perpetually and being able to buy and sell human beings. We also have countless examples of specific carvebacks of individual rights in specific, agreed upon circumstances in the US and just societies broadly
what you're describing – being owned by another human perpetually – is chattel slavery. other forms of slavery exist, including forced penal labor. you just don't know what the word slavery means because you have the intellectual range of a literal fucking child, which i say because even most teenagers who pay an ounce of attention in history classes understand this
Forced penal labor is not slavery. This is like saying prison is kidnapping. It’s stupid, there is a big difference between the two. And if u want to get very literal, being owned as property is a key part of the definition of slavery, forced penal labor does not meet that description. So ur wrong on all accounts
De facto slavery isn’t slavery, that’s why they put the term “de facto” infront of it. Anyways this is just boiling it down to the most basic form of logic without regard for any nuance. This argument is the same as saying jail is kidnapping because ppl are being held against their will. Kidnapping is completely illegal and completely different from jail despite the fact that they are both holding ppl against their will. Holding criminals in jail is a punishment for a crime they have committed.
That doesn’t prove ur point at all. The examples on that speak to it. De facto segregation vs segregation. If the speed limit is 30 mph but everyone drives 40 on it, the road is literally a 30 but it’s a de facto 40. Using de facto in this argument is just breaking it down to the most basic logic solely so that u have some sort of point
The kidnapping v jail analogy is the perfect analogy for this. U are trying to use the base definition (which btw isn’t even the base definition, it’s a significantly broadened definition in order for u to still have an argument) and apply that to the punishment of a crime without acknowledging that it is a punishment for a crime. If you are in jail u are being held against ur will, the same way that if u are doing penal labor u are doing work against ur will. That doesn’t make jail kidnapping
de facto means in actuality, de jure means in law. de facto segregation is segregation regardless of law, and de jure segregation is segregation under law. both are segregation. there is no "de facto segregation vs segregation"; it is de facto vs de jure. you are quite literally just saying "illegal segregation vs codified segregation" again, the kidnapping analogy is false equivalency. but you aren't intellectually curious do you literally repeated yourself instead of asking how
Some of the first trading posts were established in the mid 1800s and coastal regions started being owned by the 1870s actually- you start tearing down and destroying civilizations to even begin taking and colonizing territorities. Colonizers don’t just show up and say hey this my land now- it takes major time and disruption to start taking down entire lands.
Ur misrepresenting the term “in actuality” that’s why I used the speed limit analogy. If the speed limit is 30 but ppl commonly drive 40 on it then u can say it is a de facto 40 but that doesn’t make the speed limit actually 40. Same thing with segregation. De facto segregation isn’t segregation because nobody is forcing ppl to be separate. Ppl are choosing to live where they want to live. The kidnapping analogy is the perfect analogy for reasons I’ve previously described
The British empire banned the international trade of slaves in 1807 and the US banned international slave trade in 1808 which wiped out the vast majority of the trans Atlantic slave trade. Both well before the mid 1800s. Also trade posts and colonization are far different from one another and completely unrelated. Trade posts help local economies. All that trading did was make African nations wealthier and stronger. There is no disruption until colonization, which is after slavery
Murder can't just be intentionally taking a life because that would include self defense, assisted suicide, pulling the plug on a person who won't return to consciousness, and many more forms of killing that aren't murder. I'll ask one more time before I explain: What differentiates killing from murder?
It's not a gotcha buddy. I'm simply walking you through my logic and your defensive attitude is making you interpret that as a gotcha Now, you seem to understand that legality is what determines "murder". Next, I'll ask you what makes a sex act rape? Is somebody still a rapist if they non-consensually force sex with somebody, even if a jurisdiction has no rape charge (which is actually the case in several)? I would say yes. Would you?
first off pipe down i didn’t hurl insults at you. secondly, was it not white ppl who went to west africa and started the transatlantic slave trade? then colonized the majority of african countries? then “ended” slavery because the slaves started rebelling? if not then pls direct me to a reliable source that states otherwise.